I have set up a VPN where one of my clients has a LAN behind it. I can reach the LAN fine - and as far as I can tell, everything is working. But there is this one strange IP address in the routing table of my server that is not making sense.
First, here is a quick diagram of my VPN setup:
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server 10.8.0.1
|
+ client 10.8.0.2
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+ client 10.8.0.3
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+ client-with-lan 10.8.0.4 <--->[LAN 192.168.100.0/24]
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+ client 10.8.0.5
Now here is the routing table of the OpenVPN server:
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$ route -n
Kernel IP routing table
Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface
0.0.0.0 88.88.88.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0
10.8.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 tun0
88.88.88.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0
192.168.100.0 10.8.0.2 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0
I see the last line, which appears to route traffic for the 192.168.100.0 network to 10.8.0.2, yet that is the address of a client which does NOT have any LAN behind it. From the server and from other clients, when i try to connect to 10.8.0.2, I successfully connect to the client that I wanted to connect to. And I have confirmed that I can reach the systems in the 10.8.0.4 client's LAN. The routing is behaving correctly - routing to 10.8.0.4, but the routing table isn't showing that. Because if it was actually routing to 10.8.0.2, I would never reach the LAN.
So my question is, why does it show 10.8.0.2 as the gateway to my LAN? Is this intentional? Should I treat that address as "reserved" and re-assign my client to another IP address? Or is everything going to be ok?
Thanks.