I have a specific use case that I think OpenVPN might be able to accomplish:
- A hosted VServer (Machine A) has multiple /32 IPv4 addresses on eth0.
- An application server (Machine B) has a normal internet uplink, but without a public-facing IPv4 address.
- I want to set up a OpenVPN server on Machine A (the VServer).
- Witht the configuration, Machine B (the application server) should have one of the currently public-facing IPv4s of Machine A (the VServer) on its virtual interface.
Is this kind of passthrough possible?
Note: I am explicitly looking for a solution that preserves the public IP on the network interface on Machine B. Therefore just using NAT would be inappropriate for the use-case.
Thank you very much in advance.