[deleted]
I have set up an openVPN server to which various clients can successfully connect.
Currently, each client is allocated a virtual IP by the openVPN server, and traffic is routed from the LAN on which the openVPN server sits to/from the client LAN
I am trying to work out how/if I can avoid exposing the client LAN to the openVPN server connected LAN directly - such that the all contact to the device(s) on the client LAN from the server LAN via, presumably, the virtual IP allocated to that client. In other words, from the point of view of the server LAN the client becomes a single IP address, which may then have certain services exposed behind it via port forwarding....
Cheers!
