Thanks for the guide. I think I'm asking about something different (but like I said I'm still trying to wrap my head around the concept of a VPN server), so I'll try to rephrase my question to try to make it more clear.
1. Once I use the OpenVPN client to remotely connect to a VPN server I've setup, it's almost as if that that computer (or whatever remote device is running the client) is physically connected to the same LAN the server is on? So as far as my remote device accessing/mounting any SMB/CIFS shares on the LAN (and reading/writing files to them), it's *essentially* as secure as (and no different than) if the device was physically located inside the LAN because it's never actually accessing the outside WAN? ( Assuming I'm using OpenVPN and not PPTP.)
2. But web traffic from that remote client is handled completely different/independently and as far as you can tell (from my stated goals), I won't see any benefit in or need to use redirect-gateway?
TinCanTech wroteAlso,
- NOTE: your local LAN uses the extremely common subnet address 192.168.0.x or 192.168.1.x. Be aware that this might create routing conflicts if you connect to the VPN server from public locations such as internet cafes that use the same subnet.
:arrow:
Never use 192.168.0.0/24 or 192.168.1.0/24 (or other common subnets) for your OpenVPN Server LAN :!:
- You are advised to change your server LAN to a more unique RFC1918 compliant subnet. f.e 192.168.143.0/24
That's very helpful, thanks! Just to clarify, when you say "[OpenVPN] server LAN" you're just referring to the LAN my server is a part of, correct? I see that in my server settings it has a dynamic IP of 10.8.0.1, so I just want to make sure you're not talking about some kind of subnet the vpn server itself has.
