opentoe
My father has an Asus 78U router. I have an Asus 68U router. I set his router up as an OpenVPN server and I connected via the little software client that Asus made me download. Both of our networks are 192.168.1.x. So, how do I access his resources if my IP addresses and his are the same? This is what OpenVPN is used for, right? I thought I would be able to connect and somehow the Openvpn software would re-address my IPs to 10.0.8.x or something and then I can connect to my fathers network. Like printer, default shares, remote desktop....for me to get that kind of VPN access does one of us really have to change our entire subnet for this to work?
TinCanTech
What you have is known as a network conflict .. you have to change at least one side.
opentoe
Really? I know I can change my router's subnet easily but if my dad had to do with it, impossible. I also can connect via openVPN with one computer to his router and his router gives me an isolated address. I guess it all has to do with the routing in the end.
TinCanTech
You can try --client-nat if you like .. but like the built in packet filter.. that has little time left, I fear.
Do it right and change your network number.
