Norbert78
Dear forum,
I'm currently experimenting with IPV6 in my network and my only problem left is an IPV6 VPN connection that is made from my firewall/router (pfsense based) to a VPN provider in Sweden (Ipredator).
To make it short: I can connect to the OpenVPN server and the connection works kinda fine. However it does not set me a gateway for the IPV6 traffic via the tunnel. The OpenVPN client sets me a route for 2000::/3 to the openVPN interface so that I can basically use the tunnel. However, as I'm using policy based routing on that machine, I'm trying to achieve a situation in which I would have a gateway set for the traffic via the tunnel.
As far as I understood the redirect-gateway directive for IPV6 has been tricky for OpenVPN for quite a while (or still is) but I have to admin that I don't understand why this should all be so complicated.
Unfortunately, I don't control the server setup in this case.
So, I have two question:
1) Can you help me to understand, how this routing actually works? I meant if the router simply takes the packets and submits it to the OpenVPN adapter it should somehow know, who is on the other side? Or am I mistaken here?
2) Is there any way in which I could set up my client config in a way that it gives me an IPV6 gateway for this tunnel?
Thanks in advance?
Norbert
