Quick question, so I am still wrapping my head around this, I've come across the following document:
https://openvpn.net/index.php/access-server/section-faq-openvpn-as/server-configuration/209-how-do-i-setup-openvpn-access-server-to-use-site-to-site.html
Now at the bottom it states the following:
· Now in order to get a tunnel established between AS1 and AS2 we will need to setup a gateway client on one of the LAN'S for either AS1 or AS2.
· By setting up the gateway client it will connect to a remote access server (AS1) and push the routes from the access server(AS1) to the LAN(AS2) and push its LAN's(AS2) routes to the remote Access Server(AS1).
· If you want an access server on the LAN(AS2) of the gateway client to connect to the remote access server(AS1) you will need to make sure your explicitly state in the User Permissions area of the user that the gateway client connects to the access server(AS1) to push the route of the private subnet of the access server(AS2).
so with the above statement, does that mean I need to have a client connected behind each server, pointing at the opposite server it is connected to physically?
Or is the Gateway another configuration on the servers? I've updated my drawing. Correct me if I am not understanding any point of this, but in the OpenVPN server configuration, what would the routers look like to the OpenVPN server, a client? a server? other, unsupported node?